Arsenal reportedly reach a decision over the future of defender Takehiro Tomiyasu.
In the summer of 2021, the Gunners opted to pay a £17.8m fee to secure the services of the Japan international from Bologna.
Since then, Tomiyasu has proven to be a valuable squad member, making a total of 50 starts and 33 substitute outings in all competitions.
However, during his three Premier League campaigns, the 25-year-old is yet to make over 22 appearances in a single season, albeit that not always down to the player.
Mikel Arteta has sometime opted for other options, highlighted by the versatile player having made 28 substitute outings in the Premier League.
Nevertheless, Tomiyasu also possesses a poor fitness record during his time at the Emirates Stadium, suffering several calf and knee injuries.
Arteta makes decision on Tomiyasu future
Tomiyasu is yet to make a single appearance during 2024-25 courtesy of a knee injury that was sustained during the summer.
Although there is a suggestion that he could return in the coming days and weeks, it remains to be seen whether Mikel Arteta will be prepared to immediately reintegrate him back into the senior fold.
According to CaughtOffside, Arsenal and Arteta have already reached the decision of being open to suitable offers for his signature.
The report suggests that it is not beyond the realms of possibility that the North Londoners could cash in on Tomiyasu if a bid arrives in January, although it is highlighted that a summer exit is more likely.
Tomiyasu has now entered the final two years of his contract and it appears increasingly unlikely that Arsenal will look to extend his terms.
